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This question is deeply rooted in a problem that relates to the context of Scripture. By context, I mean to say the historical record, the culture and the time period the text was written in, along with the grammatical prose that reflects the author’s intent. In simpler terms, this question stems from a misunderstanding of the difference between eisegesis and exegesis.
The practice of eisegesis is when one projects their own biases and ideas onto whatever text they are reading or studying. The practice of exegesis is when one finds the original meaning of a text they are reading or studying based on its original context. Eisegesis means “to guide into” the text (subjective interpretation), while exegesis means “to guide out of” the text (objective interpretation). With this in mind, let’s quickly observe what Scripture says concerning the gender or sexuality of God in the Bible and examine the claims of Matriarchal Christianity against God’s Word.
In the Bible, there are certain verses and passages that reveal the nature of God and how He chose to reveal Himself in a tangible way for us humans to comprehend. Now, is God a man? No, God is not a man and neither is He a woman. God is not a physical being, so He does not have the physical characteristics that are typically associated with a man or a woman (i.e. anatomy, chromosomes, cognitive function, DNA, etc). In fact, God is beyond the bounds of His own Creation and is free of those specific characteristics that are distinct to both men and women. God is an uncaused being that is eternal, immaterial, non-contingent, non-physical, and personally caused the universe into existence.
With that said, what we find in Scripture is numerous references to the Holy Spirit in the masculine sense. This can be seen in various places such as Isaiah 64:4, Romans 8:26, and 1 Corinthians 12:11, for instance. Yet, we also find allegory and prose that alludes to God bearing feminine characteristics (2) as well, so how do we reconcile the two differing views of God?
Before answering this, we must deduce some simple truths. First off, is God sovereign over all His Creation? Yes. Okay, did the Holy Spirit inspire the authors of the various books within the Bible to clearly and perfectly relay His message truthfully? Yes. Next, if God is sovereign, if the Holy Spirit is God (3), and He had direct control over the development of the Bible, then why did the Holy Spirit choose to associate masculine terminology to Himself?
Because the masculine sense is God’s preferred gender pronoun and best portrays God’s nature to mere humans like us. Think about it. If God wanted us to attribute the feminine sense to Himself as a tri-unity of persons, then He would have made the distinction clear. But, as Scripture overwhelmingly supports, God has chosen to and prefers to be referred to in the masculine sense. The Trinity consists of the Father, the Son, and the Spirit. It does not consist of the Father, the Son, and the Mother.
So for us in the 21st century to incorrectly associate God in the feminine sense is crass and a gross misrepresentation of who God is within all three of the Abrahamic faiths (Islam, Judaism, & Judeo-Christianity). In order to properly understand the text in the Bible, we should allow context to dictate our conclusions, not our culture. In order to know who God is, we should hear and read what He is referred to in Scripture. Projecting our culture onto another culture’s original understanding of God is foolish to say the least.
As believers in Christ, we should have a proper knowledge of God and understand who He reveals Himself to be and the manner He chooses to do so. On the other hand, non-believers should respectfully understand both the historical record and the cultural atmosphere that encompasses the origins of Judeo-Christianity, in order to properly understand who the Christian God is both then and now in this present age. Cultures and interpretations change, but context, the intent of the ultimate author, and meaning will always remain the same when we understand the text. With that, Godspeed and Jesus bless!
- Judges 14:6 and other references to the Holy Spirit in the original Hebrew of the book of Judges use the feminine verb for “came upon” as we see it in modern English. Also, Matthew 23:37 is another example where those that support the view of Matriarchal Christianity reference as evidence of this idea. Although, this is simply an analogy of how Christ describes his heart for the Jewish people and how He longs to care for them like a mother hen. For more information on Matriarchal Christianity, you can read more here: http://www.theology.edu/journal/volume3/spirit.htm.
- Acts 5:3-4